Can we conclude only that neither the author nor the editors actually read this piece?
It tells us of a "feminist columnist" who took "Cosmopolitan to task for its heteronormative, male-pleasure-oriented approach"--which is evidently feminist Newspeak for the straight female readers' interest in pleasing their partners. Then it ridicules as ridiculous the suggestion of "the double standard that...would never allow a man to publish instructions on giving blowjobs...the author would be accused of misogyny and sexual harassment"--only to speak next of "mainstream patriarchal sexual messaging." Tell me, do the editors scan the copy for nothing more than dangling participles?
Perhaps what we should conclude is that people who won't acknowledge several decades of male-sexuality-is-male-sexism feminism in both academia and society at large won't recognize it in their own writing.